answersLogoWhite

0

The distinction between Jews and Gentiles was meaningless until the time of Abraham, at the earliest. Even then, it is problematic because the definition of Gentile eventually came to include the children of Ishmael. The term really only comes into its own when contrasting the Children of Israel to the other peoples of the world.

User Avatar

Anonymous

4y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

MaxineMaxine
I respect you enough to keep it real.
Chat with Maxine
TaigaTaiga
Every great hero faces trials, and you—yes, YOU—are no exception!
Chat with Taiga
SteveSteve
Knowledge is a journey, you know? We'll get there.
Chat with Steve

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: How could Enoch be a gentile if he was a decendant of Adam?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp