During the time of Shakespeare Jews didn't live in England (they were cast out by Edward the 1st.)
It is probable that Shakespeare had never seen a Jew in his life, however in 1594 a famous Jew stood for trial - Rodrigo Lopez and scholars believe that Shakespearean knowledge about Jews came from this famous trial.
in 1597 Shakespeare wrote "the merchant of Venice" which besides the endemic antisemitic views of that time also portrays the Jew as human in a certain "spin" in the famous monologue
"Hath not a Jew eyes? Hath not a Jew hands, organs, dimensions, senses, affections, passions; fed with the same food, hurt with the same weapons, subject to the same diseases, healed by the same means, warmed and cooled by the same winter and summer, as a Christian is? If you prick us, do we not bleed? If you tickle us, do we not laugh? If you poison us, do we not die? and if you wrong us, shall we not revenge?" 3:1
which is very positive in comparison with Marlowe's (shakespear contemprour) "the Jew from Malta" - a totally antisemitic awful portray of the Jew.
Shakespear Jew all in all is a complicated - human figure.
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no he didnt
He didnt own it but the famous Shakespeare playhouse is the globe theatre
Jews were expelled from London around 1290 by Edward I. Oliver Cromwell approved their return in 1655. William Shakespeare probably never saw, or met a jew, but there were many superstitions, so he probably was scared of them.
he didnt
obviously he didnt like showing his penis to people. so he wrote about it instead.