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Shakepeare was co-owner of the Globe playhouse.

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Was the Globe Theatre one of Shakespeare's theaters?

Yes he was a part-owner of two theatres, the Globe and the Blackfriars.


What finally happened to Shakespeare's theater?

It depends what you mean by "Shakespeare's Theatre". He was a part-owner of two theatres, one of which burned down in 1613 and the other demolished in 1655. Neither of these theatres was called "Shakespeare's Theatre" so perhaps you mean some other theatre.


In what outdoor theater did Shakespeare's present most of his plays?

Shakespeare was part owner of two theatres, The Globe Theatre and The Blackfriars. He called the Globe Theatre the Wooden "O" in his play Henry V because it was built almost circular with an open courtyard in the middle. The Blackfriars was an indoor theatre, designed very much like theatres today with a thrust stage and seating both on the floor and in galleries.The Globe Theater.


What was the theater called Shakespeare was connected to?

Shakespeare was part owner of two theatres: The Globe and the Blackfriars. Some scholars think his early plays were performed at The Theatre and The Curtain.


Why is the Globe Theatre associated with William shackspear?

Shakespeare was a part owner of the Globe, and belonged to the company who regularly played there. As a result, many Shakespeare plays were played at the Globe.


What theatre are connected to Shakespeare?

The Globe Theatre was the home of the Lord Chamberlain's Men (afterwards known as the King's Men) from 1599 to 1642. Shakespeare was associated with this group until his retirement in 1613, which means he played at the Globe more than any other theatre.


What happened to William Shakespeare's theater in 1613?

The Globe Theatre, which was not Shakespeare's by the way, since he was only a part owner, burned down on June 29, 1613 during a performance of Henry VIII.


Which theater is William Shakespeare part owner of according to evidence?

shakespeare is known for being a part owner of the globe theater


What was the purpose that William Shakespeare wrote his plays?

Shakespeare wrote his plays to make money. He was part owner of a theatre company and they made more money if they had new plays and good plays to put on. Shakespeare was able to provide the company with both.


Did Shakespeare's theater close in 1592?

What theatre are you thinking of as "shakespeare's theatre"? Because Shakespeare did not own even a part of any theatre in 1592. Nor did he own even a part of any theatrical company. In fact he may not have even been a permanent member of any theatrical company at that time. There was nothing you could call "shakespeare's theatre" in 1592.


What was Shakespeare's connection with Globe Theatre?

The first Globe Playhouse existed in London, in England between 1599 and 1613. Many of Shakespeare's plays were performed on the Globe theatre for the first time. He was a part owner of the Globe as well as being a partner in the company that performed there.


What was shakespeare's theaters name?

Shakespeare was a part owner of The Globe (built 1599) and after 1608, the Blackfriars. He also played at The Theatre (before 1595) and The Curtain (1595-1599), and may have played at The Rose, or the Bel Savage or Bull Inns