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Yes, he did in many.Though we are not sure which ones.

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Vergie Moen

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Did Shakespeare perform in any other plays than his own?

Yes, we know that he performed in two plays of Ben Jonson's, Sejanus and Every Man Out of his Humour.


Did William shakespeare write his own plays and poems?

Yes.


Welldid shakespeare write the plays published under his name?

Rumor is Shakespeare did not write his own plays published under his name they say he had help writing them.


Did William shakespeare just perform his plays or did he write them as well?

He wrote his own plays and sometimes performed in those plays


Did William Shakespeare publish his sonnets?

Some people say that he did, some people say not. But the pure evidence is unknown, like Shakespeare's life himself, he was very private so we don't have alot of evidence to say. It's unlikely that Shakespeare himself had any of his own plays published for the simple fact that it was expensive and there would have been no reason to. People didn't publish things back then unless there was a strong market for something, particularly playwrights - publishing a play meant that it could be performed without you. Plays generally weren't extensively read or printed back then, they existed mostly as performance. It was only people who had a real passion for theatre that would buy a printed play in quarto or octavo form. Shakespeare's first folio was only the second time an English playwright had his plays published in folio (the most expensive way to print) ever - and that was after he was dead. Publishing was a VERY expensive and time consuming process. Some of the earlier quartos (the "bad" quartos) that were printed are, in many opinions, constructed from the memories of actors who performed in Shakespeare's plays. They were printed so that the plays could be taken out with acting troupes who were forced to ply their trade abroad when the theatres closed due to plague. Most of Shakespeare's plays were published for the first time in 1623 when William Jaggard and Edward Blount managed to get the rights (there were copyrights of sorts back then, though they mostly applied to the ownership of the manuscripts at that point) and the help of those who knew and worked with Shakespeare. They were only published after it was clear that Shakespeare would remain a legend after his death.

Related Questions

Why did it take seven years after the death of shakespeare to publish his plays?

Because Shakespeare never published his own work when he was alive. So when he died two of his theatre friends finally decided to publish them. These first published plays are found in whats called the First Folio.


What plays did the kings men own from shakespeare?

All of them. That's why they were able to put out a collected plays volume called the First Folio seven years after Shakespeare died. The King's Men owned the scripts and the right to publish them; Shakespeare did not.


Most of Shakespeare's time were written in five acts which were?

Most of Shakespeare's plays were arranged into five acts by the editors who eventually published them. (Shakespeare was probably not involved in publishing any of his own plays). There is no evidence that Shakespeare deliberately wrote his plays to have five acts - in fact there is quite a lot of evidence that he didn't.


What quotes did William Shakespeare say I need at least 50?

Read any or all of his plays and then you may choose your own.


Did Shakespeare perform in any other plays than his own?

Yes, we know that he performed in two plays of Ben Jonson's, Sejanus and Every Man Out of his Humour.


Did William shakespeare write his own plays and poems?

Yes.


Welldid shakespeare write the plays published under his name?

Rumor is Shakespeare did not write his own plays published under his name they say he had help writing them.


Did William shakespeare just perform his plays or did he write them as well?

He wrote his own plays and sometimes performed in those plays


In what theatres did William Shakespeare perform his plays?

William Shakespeare acted in his own plays in four theatres: the Theatre, Curtain, Globe and Blackfriars. He may also have appeared in his own plays before 1594 with whatever company he was with, but we do not know which company or which theatre.


Why did Shakespeare open his own theater?

so he could have a place to perform his own plays the way he wanted to


Did William Shakespeare publish his sonnets?

Some people say that he did, some people say not. But the pure evidence is unknown, like Shakespeare's life himself, he was very private so we don't have alot of evidence to say. It's unlikely that Shakespeare himself had any of his own plays published for the simple fact that it was expensive and there would have been no reason to. People didn't publish things back then unless there was a strong market for something, particularly playwrights - publishing a play meant that it could be performed without you. Plays generally weren't extensively read or printed back then, they existed mostly as performance. It was only people who had a real passion for theatre that would buy a printed play in quarto or octavo form. Shakespeare's first folio was only the second time an English playwright had his plays published in folio (the most expensive way to print) ever - and that was after he was dead. Publishing was a VERY expensive and time consuming process. Some of the earlier quartos (the "bad" quartos) that were printed are, in many opinions, constructed from the memories of actors who performed in Shakespeare's plays. They were printed so that the plays could be taken out with acting troupes who were forced to ply their trade abroad when the theatres closed due to plague. Most of Shakespeare's plays were published for the first time in 1623 when William Jaggard and Edward Blount managed to get the rights (there were copyrights of sorts back then, though they mostly applied to the ownership of the manuscripts at that point) and the help of those who knew and worked with Shakespeare. They were only published after it was clear that Shakespeare would remain a legend after his death.


Who were Shakespeare's plays specifically written for?

Shakespeare wrote his plays for theatre companies who would put them on and pay him for them. After he became a partner in a theatre company in 1594 he wrote all of his plays specifically for his own company to perform.