Spain ruled its empire in the Americas by setting up a political system in the Americas that were run by local governors. To make sure laws were followed, the governors also had the backing of local military troops sent from Spain.
To govern its empire in the Americas, Spain sent representatives to the Americas to act as local governors. These people were provided with both military and financial backing from Spain.
you can say the crime rate is lower than Americas crime rate. so i guess that the crime rate is lower
Prior to 1776 the colonies that would become American lived under the rule of the British empire. On July 4th 1776 the United States declared independence from the British.
Its passing would allow the United States to take control ofSouth AmericaFor Apex :)
Majority rule
To govern its empire in the Americas, Spain sent representatives to the Americas to act as local governors. These people were provided with both military and financial backing from Spain.
Empire
it was the Spanish's
he conquered land for Spain in the Americas he conquered land for Spain in the Americas
Saint Augustin
Spain
No
In the 16th century, Spain dominated the exploration and exploitation of the Americas. The Spanish Empire was one of the largest empires in history.
It was often termed a Viceroyalty.
Answer this question… Revolts against Spanish rule broke out throughout the Americas.
He conquered the Aztec empire in 1521 and acquired Mexico as an overseas colony of Spain in the Americas.
um i dont know can someone tell me