'Not in your favor' is the correct expression.
The idiom is
Example of usage:
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Yes.
Le femme is improper grammar; the correct phrase is la femme which means the woman.
Either is commonly used. However, it is unnecessary to add the word Desert to Sahara.
Please correct the spelling and grammar in your question so it can be answered. Right now it doesn't make sense.
How would you define correct in respect of English usage? English has no central legislative body (as French has with its Académie), and if you research carefully in cheap grammar books you will find each of these forms preferred to the other.The most reliable guide to what usage is correct and what is questionable in English (or any other language where grammar follows usage) is to check which form is used by a significant number of competent native speakers.A grammar professional would do this by checking one of the many reliable corpuses of English usage (the BNC, the OEC, the ICE, and the Colllins Cobuild are all good).You could do this, or you could trust me when I tell you that both usages are correct (the second is a little more formal), and that the history of how such questions even become problematic is utterly fascinating.
No, "will be had" is not a correct grammar. The correct grammar would be "will have."
No, it is correct grammar, not a correct grammar.
The correct grammar is: "Are those correct?"
"On a train" is correct grammar.
The correct grammar for this sentence is: "When did you send it?"
No, the correct grammar would be "I hate you the way you hate me."
no_____If the sentence is You do do that (meaning You are in the habit of doing that) the grammar is perfectly correct and the sentence 'does have correct grammar'.
No, the correct grammar would be: "July has just started."
its has he kissed you yet that's the correct grammar-Erendiraa
The correct way to phrase this question is: "Is my mother and I correct grammar?"
This will be an exciting month is correct grammar.
The grammar is correct as it is.