0
The British and the French following an appeasement policy thought that if they satisfied Hitler's political ambitions, they could avoid war. So, they allowed Hitler to annex the Sudetenland (part of Czechoslovakia, with mostly German inhabitants). Soon Hitler occupied the all Czechoslovakia in 1939. (Before that Austria was annexed too in the Anschluss, in 1938). There was nobody who opposed Hitler's ambitions. And he knew taht. However, after Hitler occupied the whole of Czechoslovakia, Britain and France replaced the appeasement policy by guarantees to Romania, Greece and Poland. Consequently, when Hitler invaded Poland (1 Sept), Britain and France declared war on Germany (3 Sept). (Unfortunalely that was just a declaration, but no armies were sent to hel the Polish - this period was called the 'phoney war'. )
Still curious? Ask our experts.
Chat with our AI personalities
Beau
Ezra
MaxineAdd your answer:
Earn +20 pts
Did Hitler oppose the Munich pact?
Adolf Hitler opposed the Munich Pact in various ways and even broke it severally. Winston Churchill is also known to have out-rightly opposed this pact.
Why munich pact signed?
The Munich pact was signed on 29th september 1938.The pact was signed by Htler with Britain and France.It was agred to hand over Sudetanlands to Hitler.In return Hitler guaranteed Czachoslovakia's integrity.
Was signed by 62 countries prior to World War 2?
munich pact
Words that start with 'm' that relate to World War 2?
what about the Munich Agreement/Pact
What was the outcome of the Muhich pact?
The Munich Pact gave Hitler the Sudetenland, part of Czechoslovakia. It also made him promise not to take anymore land in Europe. That was promise he broke.
