Actually, it didn't.
During the late 1800's the country was in the Industrial Revolution after the Civil War. Obviously since slavery was then turned illegal, farmers needed helped working their farm.
This encouraged inventors to come up with ideas to help them farm. This is why the first liquid gas powered tractor with a plow was invented in the year 1880. Machinery became popular enough for most farmers with a little bit of money to buy tractors, plows, etc.
Now that most farmers had an easier way to farm, they actually started to expand their farms and brought in an okay profit. this is what start the big equipment we have today.
In my opinion (not that this is a true fact) is that if slavery was to end 50 to 100 years earlier than it did, we would probably be 50 to 100 years ahead in agriculture today than in 50 to 100 years from now. If you don't get that you just have to think about it a little harder....
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Nobody could afford to pay the prices for crops that the farmers expected.
Also, the debt which farmers already had would be much easier to pay off if the economy was going through inflation.
(Inflation for example would be if an ordinary dollar bill's worth was increased to 2 dollars; deflation is when a dollar's value is decreased.)
With deflation, the farmers must pay with more dollar bills, and during inflation, they would have to pay with fewer.
become more dependent on banks and railroads
prevented the formation of a unified social class--poor farmers--by granting political privileges to whites only
In the late 1800s they did not have the sewage systems and waste disposal that we have today.
Which ones where the imperialists counries by 1800s and why?
Why were the major European powers scrambling to seize new territory in the late 1800s?