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This is a great question. My instinct says no, only the owner or person given permission to drive can consent, but when both people are in the car it gets complicated. The driver obviously cannot give consent over the owner's objection, but what if the owner is not asked? Hopefully someone can find a good case on this.

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Is it legal for a cop to search a car based off the driver's consent but the only owner of the car was in the passenger seat and not informed about the search whatsoever?

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