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Because of a long legal process and resistance from the railroads, until 1897, when Supreme Court ruled that it could not set maximum railroad rates.

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Leilani Cremin

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2y ago
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14y ago

I think you might've overlooked the answer in a rush... considering the fact that the Interstate Commerce Act did not act immediately upon limiting the power of the railroads.

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Q: Why did the Interstate commerce act immediately limit the power of the railroads?
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Related questions

Why didn't the interstate commerce immediately limit the power of railroads?

Because of a long legal process and resistance from the railroads, until 1897, when Supreme Court ruled that it could not set maximum railroad rates.


Why didn't the Interstate Commerce Act immediately limit power of the railroads?

Because of a long legal process and resistance from the railroads, until 1897, when Supreme Court ruled that it could not set maximum railroad rates.


Why didnt the interstate commerce act immediately limit the power of the railroads?

The ICC and Railroads have always had a long and fascinating relationship. They have demanded safety appliances such as standard brake equipment and handrails. They have been the final decision maker when it comes to Railroad mergers, the Southern Pacific/ Santa Fe merger being an outstanding example. Also see: The Heburn (1906) & Staggers (1980) Rail acts. If nobody's written a book on the subject I'd be shocked.


Congress uses its power to regulate commerce among the several states to justify the passage of environmental protection laws?

Yes, and anything else imaginable. The Supreme Court only recently (relatively speaking) recognized a limit to Congress' power under the Interstate Commerce Clause in the case of United States v. Lopez, 514 U.S. 549 (1995).Essentially, the Court held that Congress' power to regulate interstate commerce does not extend to activity that is both "non-economic" and "wholly intrastate." Congress may, on the other hand, regulate the "channels" of commerce (e.g., highways, rivers, railroads, etc.), "instrumentalities" of commerce (e.g., products/services bought and sold in commerce, and the means by which they travel interstate), and those activities which "substantially effect" interstate commerce. To take the Lopez case, for example, banning the mere possession of a gun within 1000 ft. of a school was neither a regulation of a channel or instrumentality of interstate commerce. The government argued that guns in/near schools had a negative effect on education; if education suffers, students won't learn as much; if American students are stupid, they will not perform as well in future jobs; therefore guns near schools have a "substantial effect" on the national economy, and thus also on interstate commerce.The Supreme Court said, "hell no... you've got to be kidding." (That's not a direct quote, just in case you're wondering.)


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