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I didn't want to read the entire first section of Ch. 4 in my book because it's pretty long, but my guess is that it's because the profit would eventually get to England(...?) and because England wanted the colonies to be less rebellious. Idk. Sorry. :/ I Googled this question for a reason. Hahaha.

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13y ago
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Q: Why did the English permit the growth of economic freedom to develop in the colonies?
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