answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

They had to accomplish a task which consisted in providing Spain with gold. They dispatched gold from the Central America. That's why there were built Panama chanell there.

User Avatar

Wiki User

7y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Why did king of Spain want his people to settle in the colonies?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Related questions

Who was the Hapsburg King who inherited Spain's American colonies and parts of Italy?

The Spanish King was Carlos V, also known as Charles V of Spain.


What system did the king of Spain use to govern the distant colonies?

The Spanish king used the Council of the Indies to govern them.


What where the 1542 new laws from Spain?

The 1542 new laws from Spain, which were issued by the Spanish King, Charles 1 was meant for Spain's colonies in the Americas. The laws were meant to protect Americas' indigenous people from large landowners' exploitation.


Why did revoulutions break out in Spain's colonies in the early 1800s?

Creoles rose up to Spain's new king so they could get more power for themselves and become independent of Spain


Why did representative government develop in the colonies?

this was because the king wanted people to govern the colonies.


Why did the colonies develop represent government?

this was because the king wanted people to govern the colonies.


Why representative government developed in the colonies?

this was because the king wanted people to govern the colonies.


Who was below the king in authority of Spain's government in the settlements?

Viceroys, and ill copy and paste the passage online i found the answer in,Spain ruled her colonies as she ruled her homeland: the king had absolute power. Viceroys, or vice kings, authorized by the king to govern the colonies, were responsible to a council in Spain, which in turn was responsible to the king. The viceroy made the laws and enforced them with his army. Spain directed her colonies with a tight rein; Spanish settlers and Indians had no say about the laws they lived under, many of which were severe. Taxes collected by the viceroy in the name of the king were levied on the settlers, and trade was forbidden with anyone other than Spain herself. Colonists were allowed to purchase supplies from Spain alone, and goods from America could be carried only in Spanish ships to Spanish ports


Who was below the king in authority in Spain's government of the settlements?

Viceroys, and ill copy and paste the passage online i found the answer in,Spain ruled her colonies as she ruled her homeland: the king had absolute power. Viceroys, or vice kings, authorized by the king to govern the colonies, were responsible to a council in Spain, which in turn was responsible to the king. The viceroy made the laws and enforced them with his army. Spain directed her colonies with a tight rein; Spanish settlers and Indians had no say about the laws they lived under, many of which were severe. Taxes collected by the viceroy in the name of the king were levied on the settlers, and trade was forbidden with anyone other than Spain herself. Colonists were allowed to purchase supplies from Spain alone, and goods from America could be carried only in Spanish ships to Spanish ports


Why did people in Spain's Latin American colonies recent Spanish control?

1) Spanish-born settlers had the most political power. 2) Spain took profits. 3) I'm not sure, but I think it's because the king was French not Spanish


The people who wanted the king to be in charge of the colonies were called?

Loyalists


Why did democracy fail to establish itself in Latin America after former Spanish and Portuguese colonies had gained their independence?

Democracy failed in Latin America after Spanish and Portuguese Colonies gained their independence because at the time, Spain and Portugal were ruled by a monarchy. King Ferdinand of Spain controlled both countries and their territories.