The key to this is your word "gift" and a gift means you can't take it back. You gave it to them. A court won't find in your favor because it was a gift.
A gentleman's agreement is an agreement which is made on each person's word of honor. It is not a legal agreement, but a verbal agreement which can be enforceable in a court of law.
A gentleman's agreement is an agreement which is made on each person's word of honor. It is not a legal agreement, but a verbal agreement which can be enforceable in a court of law.
No it doesn't.
No. Not Florida, but maybe Texas. A verbal agreement, like a wedding vow would be binding. To "unwind" the verbal agreement will probably require a divorce lawyer.
no the person should not be able to be a part of that business because they did not do what they were expected to do in stateing they veiw in the agreement
yes actually its true!! good asking
What you are creating is more of a "Gentleman's Agreement" than a contract. It is not legally binding but depending on the conditions, if both parties trust one another, it could work for a simple room agreement.
It depends...If person A's car (you being person A) is in possession of person B and the title is in Person B's name, then you are outta luck. If the title is still in your name then you can simply take the car. Keep in mind, this is only if there is no written contract or agreement. A verbal agreement is pretty much meaningless.
Not unless you had a written agreement that they could remodel and you would pay the costs. In the absence of a written agreement the person would need to provide enough evidence to prove there was a verbal contract.It all depends on the terms of your agreement.Not unless you had a written agreement that they could remodel and you would pay the costs. In the absence of a written agreement the person would need to provide enough evidence to prove there was a verbal contract.It all depends on the terms of your agreement.Not unless you had a written agreement that they could remodel and you would pay the costs. In the absence of a written agreement the person would need to provide enough evidence to prove there was a verbal contract.It all depends on the terms of your agreement.Not unless you had a written agreement that they could remodel and you would pay the costs. In the absence of a written agreement the person would need to provide enough evidence to prove there was a verbal contract.It all depends on the terms of your agreement.
A breach of verbal agreement is when for example: You make a spoken agree with a landlord to clean your house when you move out. You move out and leave it all dirty. You have breached a verbal agreement. Its kind of like breaking a promaise!
Verbal agreements are not binding anywhere.
An verbal agreement is something two or more parties have agreed to do, agreed not to do or an arrangement made verbally and not in writing. In some jurisdictions a verbal agreement can be binding if there are truthworthy witesses to it, in other jurisdictions it may not be binding.