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This is a topic of heated dabating, because the generic pronunciation procluding to the annex, most commonly pertaining to the owner himself cannot be justified by the Quadratic Forum. Through basics of purplex analogy, we can now conclude that through further investigation, the Binominal Theorum can't possibly be related to a subject of this sort, therefore, yes.

EDIT: I think the guy above is mocking you. In the interest of being helpful - No it isn't. One quarter (1/4) is less than one third (1/3). If a fraction is expressed as 1/x, the larger x is, the smaller the number over all.

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Wiki User

13y ago
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Wiki User

14y ago

On the basis that 2/3 is less than 3/4 I would say that no it isn't...although 3/4 of an American cup is less than 2/3 of a British cup.

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Wiki User

6y ago

yes

only 3 of 1 third needed to fill cup

whereas 4 of 1 fourth needed.

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Wiki User

14y ago

A third cup.

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Wiki User

13y ago

1/3 does not equal 3/4..

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Wiki User

11y ago

one third cup

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Anonymous

Lvl 1
3y ago

1/3

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Q: Is two-thirds cup larger than three-quarter cup?
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