Is heroin a stimulant depressant tranquilizer or hallucinogen?

Answer 1

Mostly, NO. Heroin is psychoactive (which merely means it is neurologically active)--but it is not a hallucinogen nor a stimulant. It is a semi-synthetic opiate (meaning it specifically acts on mu-opioid receptors in the brain). This action in the brain causes central nervous system depression. This means it induces opposite effects than stimulative drugs, to name a few alternative centrally acting symptoms: somnolence/sleepiness, anxiolysis (reduction of anxiety), decrease response to external stimuli, ataxia (reduction of muscle coordination), lowered blood-pressure, decrease in heart rate, reduction of heart-rate (or BPM-rate), and hypotension. All of these symptoms mentioned are nearly completely opposite of that of stimulate effects on the body & brain.

Conversely, traditional hallucinogens (such as LSD, magic-mushrooms, and peyote) and stimulants do not impact endogenous opioid receptors whatsoever. Stimulants largely increase dopamine levels; and to a lesser degree, they non-selectively increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels--this results in a stimulant effect. Traditional hallucinogens (i.e., psychedelics) of both the tryptamine (DMT, LSD, psilocybin/"magic mushrooms") and phenethylamine (MDMA/ecstasy, 2c-b, mescaline/peyote) classes usually act selectively on serotonin receptors, specifically at 5-HT2 sub-receptors, this being the receptor most responsible for psychedelic effects associated with these drugs (although they also act at the serotoninergic receptors: 5-HT1a, 5-HT2a, & 5-HT2c. And also having some affinity for some dopamine-sub receptors; the action at these specific sub-receptors differs between psychedelics, and this is usually what contributes to the differentiation between hallucinogenic effects between similar psychedelics- such as the differences between peyote & LSD).

Non-traditional hallucinogens also do not act on the same receptors as heroin and thus do not produce similar psychoactive effects. Deliriants (like Datura) owe their effects to their anticholinergic effects- which cause delusional type effects, rather than less realistic hallucinations attributed to traditional hallucinogens like LSD. And dissociatives such as PCP, dextromethorphan (DXM), and ketamine--which are commonly considered "hallucinogens"--act as NMDA antagonists and agonists at PCP-receptor sites; which, again, create psychoactive effects quite different than pure-OPIOIDergic drugs. Although some opiates like methadone do act as NMDA antagonists, this effect is negligible even at very high doses and no "hallucinogenic" psychoactive effects are realized.

Answer 2

I'd personally would have to say a tranquilizer even though it produces far less drowsiness than morphine. The terms "depressant" and "tranquilizer" are strongly related but not always synonymous. Heroin is an opiate and as such is pharmaceutically considered a depressant painkiller, meaning analgesia is produced by depressing (numbing) the capacity of the brain to process pain signals. But on the other hand, in some Western countries such as the UK, Canada and Australia heroin is made available to terminally ill patients to use instead of morphine during waking hours which allows them to remain more alert and able to interact socially, because heroin produces less drowsiness than morphine while being almost as effective a painkiller. In this context it would not be considered a tranquilizer by the patient taking it, but not a stimulant either.

Answer 3

No, heroin is classified as an opiate, which is a form a narcotic not a hallucinogen.