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Most people believe that Shakespeare used the witches and other elements of the supernatural in the play "Macbeth" because a. it added a dramatic effect to the play and b. the new monarch at that time (James I) was very interested in the supernatural. So Shakespeare probably used this play to impress the king! Also, around the time that Shakespeare was writing this play, a lot of people were persecuted for being "witches", so you could think of "Macbeth" as an early form of satire!

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14y ago
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12y ago

He didn't. Scholars think that Shakespeare's original play contained only the two scenes of prophecy: the one in Act one and the "Cauldron Scene". But the witches were extremely popular figures, so Thomas Middleton was called in to amplify the witches' part and to give them a few song and dance numbers. He also created a new character, Hecate. Middleton probably wrote and added the first scene in the play and Act 3, Scene 5 with Hecate, as well as amplifying the Cauldron scene, adding Hecate and some song and dance. The stage direction "Music and a song, 'Black Spirits' &c." alludes to the Witches' Song "Black Spirits" which was written by Middleton. This is why he is suspected of being the adapter.

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12y ago

The witches present the awakening of Macbeth's ambition. They also serve to develop a dark mood and setting throughout the whole play because after scene one, the setting is changed to a battlefield.

His main reason for putting them first was that they were attention-getting without being the main characters in the play. They would be likely to distract the audience away from flirting and buying Oranges or whatever.

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9y ago

Witches were a popular subject for plays in Shakespeare's day. He had included a witch called Margery Jourdain in his earlier play Henry VI Part 2, and Mercutio in Romeo and Juliet imitates a witch's "conjuring". The witches are peripheral in Macbeth, but became the main subject of a number of later plays, including The Witch, a play by Thomas Middleton from about three years after Macbeth, The Witch of Edmonton (a very successful play, 1621), and The Late Lancashire Witches. It was a topical subject, of interest to many people and not just to the king. What is interesting is that the play was not successful at the time, was not printed and not chosen to be performed for the wedding of Princess Elizabeth in 1612, and was substantially reworked (possibly around 1615) by adding new material in the style of Middleton's more successful play and old song-and-dance numbers from that play, in which the witches are depicted as cute and playful. King James may have been frightened of witches, but the general public apparently wasn't.

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Q: Why did shakespeare choose to write about the witches in Macbeth?
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Related questions

Who was angry at the three witches for predicting the future for Macbeth?

Hecate, in a scene which is always cut from any production of the play because Shakespeare didn't actually write it.


What play did Shakespeare probably write to please James 1?

Macbeth.


How old was William when he started to write the Macbeth?

Macbeth was published in 1623, and William Shakespeare was born in 1564. You do the math! :)


Why is Hecate upset In Macbeth?

Hecate is upset in Macbeth because she feels that the three witches have been meddling in Macbeth's affairs without involving her. She believes that they have been giving Macbeth false confidence and leading him astray, which goes against their practice of working together as a team. Additionally, she is angry that they did not consult her before making their prophecies known to Macbeth.


When did shakespeare write his play called Macbeth?

Sometime between 1603 and 1607.


Which plays did shakespeare write between 1605 and 1606?

Apparently, Macbeth and Antony and Cleopatra


What are 3 plays that William shakespeare write?

Romeo & Juiliet Much Ado about Nothing Macbeth


What is the name of the play that some critic say that shakespeare used to write Macbeth?

Shakespeare got his plot for Macbeth from Holinshed's Chronicles, which is a history book, not a play. Parts of The Witch by Thomas Middleton were lifted from that rather unsuccessful play and plopped down into the middle of Macbeth, but it is suspected that this was not done by Shakespeare but by some later editor.


Who requested the shakespeare write the play Macbeth?

One of the fantasies of readers of Shakespeare is that someone came up to Shakespeare and said, "You should write a play about Falstaff in love" or "You should write a play about Hamlet", or "You should write a play about witches and Scottish history". There is no evidence that anything of this kind ever happened. In particular, there is no evidence that any king or queen of England ever told Shakespeare how to do his job. Choosing the right story for his plays was Shakespeare's job. Like anyone else in the marketing business, he went with what was trending: his character of Falstaff was hugely popular so he wrote sequels; Hamlet was a proven stage play and revenge tragedies an established genre; Macbeth was written just after the Gunpowder Plot at a time when supporting the king would appear to be a politically correct and popular move. (Shakespeare seems to have miscalculated on this last one; the indications are that Macbeth was not a popular play with either the public or the court)


In which metrical pattern did Shakespeare write Macbeth?

Shakespeare wrote "Macbeth" in unrhymed iambic pentameter, also known as blank verse. This metrical pattern consists of lines with five pairs of alternating unstressed and stressed syllables.


Why did William Shakespeare write MacBeth?

Shakespeare wrote all of his plays for the same reason--to make money. It was his job.


Why does Macbeth write a letter to lady Macbeth?

Macbeth did this to inform Lady M about what had happened so far.By this time,Macbeth was qualified for the throne,but it wasn't guaranteed for him to become king.