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Islam was never spread by conquest. Refer to Spain that was controlled by Muslims for hundreds of years. No Spanish was obliged to convert to Islam. People in Iraq converted tio Islam over hundreds of years at their own free will. In Egypt, you find many families part of them are Christians and other part are Muslims. Islam spread by traders through the familiarization of people with the good morals of Muslims and by the truthfulnes and logic of Islam religion. Refer to question below.

The question "conquest or trade" is a false dichotomy. A more important factor than either was the social pressure to convert.

What usually happened was that the Muslims conquered a place and imposed an Islamic political system. Individuals were not forced to become Muslims. But if they did not, they had to pay a heavy tax (the jizya) and suffered many social disadvantages: they were not allowed to make a public display of their original religion; they were not allowed to defend themselves if attacked by a Muslim; they had to give free hospitality to Muslim visitors; they even had to give up their seats in public places to a Muslim who wanted them. These disadvantages were so oppressive that in the end, the majority of people would convert to Islam voluntarily in order to acquire a better position in society.

Some people also converted due to trade and other connections. They heard about Islam, liked the ideas and made a completely free conversion. But this was a comparatively small number. The assertion that people were "never" converted at sword-point is not correct. It did happen, though not as commonly as the social-pressure conversion.

To return to the original question: Conquest was far more effective than trade in spreading Islam, but the path was from conquest to conversion was indirect.

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Q: Was conquest or trade more effective in spreading Islam?
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Related questions

Which religion spread rapidly through conquest and intercontinental trade?

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