Was Germany solely responsible for the outbreak of World War 1?

Answer 1

Actually, Germany was practically free from guilt. They entered the war and were hated so much that the Treaty of Versailles included a war-guilt clause. This clause stated that Germany alone was responsible for WWI. So yes, on the record they are, but in reality that is a definitive no.

Answer 2

There is blame to go around to all the countries involved in WWII. This period started an arms race where apparently Germany was winning and the generals wanting a war. Nationalism and Militarism has become the talk of the European countries as tensions mount to a crescendo. In this period, we see the first terrorists sponsored by a state, Serbia. What came out of the assassination of Prince Franz Ferdinand is something out of a comic book. The Prince, the heir apparent to the throne in Austria-Hungary, was assassinated by and planned by Serbian terrorists for the way the Austro-Hungarians were treating the Serbs. Here, Serbia is backed by the Russia. France and Britain will back Russia in any war as Russia is using French money to industrialize themselves. Germany only had Austria-Hungary and for a while, Italy, until they turncoat back to France. The war begins when Austria-Hungary attacking Serbia, with the blessing from Kaiser Wilhelm of Germany. This gets Russia involved as they defend Serbia. Then, of course, France and England got involved. The United States only entered when Germany sunk American trading ships and sided with Britain, France, and Russia. But wait a minute, what about the assassination. It's no longer part of the equation. The German generals wanted an opportunity to expand their empire and thought it would be a cakewalk taking out Russia and then France in a short war. They now have their opportunity and the short war turned into a long one.

A punitive strike by the Austro-Hungarians would maybe have been tolerated by other European governments (who all were outraged at the assassination) if it had happened right after the murder. But Austro-Hungarian military preparations and diplomatic procedures were notoriously inefficient and time-consuming. The Hungarian and Austrian governments rarely agreed on anything, and the military of the Habsburg monarchy (as the Austrian monarchy used to be called) was poorly organized and coordinated.

The mobilization order appeared in some twenty different languages - testimony to the tolerance but also to the impracticality of the empire. It took the Austro-Hungarian government four weeks to send an ultimatum to Belgrade, demanding far-reaching powers to investigate the murder and the implication of the Serb government. Because of the inefficiency of the Austria-Hungarian government, they should share the blame. Because of a lack of dialogue among nations, they automtically took up arms to defend one another. So I would say that a lack of diplomacy among nations caused this war. So the Treaty of Versailles was drawn up to punish mainly Germany as there is no such country called "diplomacy." Should Germany be punished? For their act of trying to be the conqueror with a build up of arms, shutting down diplomacy, and threatening their neighbors, I would.