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Wiki User
∙ 13y agoWiki User
∙ 14y agoSpain has never controlled an entire continent. They were the principle influence in Central and South America.
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoSpain controlled most of the the territory from the southwestern US to the tip of South America except Brazil. At one time they also controlled Florida and various Caribbean Islands as well.
Wiki User
∙ 12y agoCentral America and most of south America. Brazil is the only South AMerican country they didnt control and it was controlled by Portugal.
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What lands the spanish control in the early 1600s?
Most of Mexico, Central and South America
When did the Spanish gain full control over Inca lands?
The Spanish gained full control over the Incas in 1572. When the last leader Túpac Amaru was killed. Then Spanish conquered Vilcabamba and gained full control of the Inca Empire.
What lands did the spanish control the early 1600?
they ruled the northwest part of the united states pretty cool huh
What lands did Balboa explore?
the spanish lands
Why were the Spanish never able to dominate the Indians in Texas?
The US dominated the Indians by SETTLEMENT on their property; the Spanish never settled enough people on Indian lands to control it.
Why did the spanish economy decline in the 1600s?
Farming and trade were neglected
What did the Spanish want to do with the lands in the Caribbean?
The Spanish wanted gold from the lands in the Caribbean. Later they used missionaries to convert the natives and farmed the lands.
How did the Assyrians and the Chaldean's maintain control of their lands?
How did the Assyrians and Chaldeans maintain control of their lands.
Did the Spanish gradually replace the Italians as the bankers of Europe in the 1600s?
yes they did
Who lost control of the Indian Ocean in the 1600s?
the portuguese
Sapanish soldiers invaded an took lands from Indians?
Conquistadors were the Spanish soldiers that invaded and took lands from the Indians.
Why did the spanish explorers and colonize New Mexico and Florida in the 1600s?
God Gold and Glory
