The two forces will produce the same torque if : R1xF1 = R2xF2; r1f1sin(R1F1) = r2f2sin(R2F2). The magnitude of the forces can be the same (f1=f2=f) but their angles with the the displacement (R) can be different, r1fsin(R1F1) = r2fsin(R2F2),and the torque will be the same. Torque is the vector product of the force and displacement.
It depends on the magnitude of the forces.
Balanced
Yes, you will have a net force but its magnitude is zero if it does not cause any acceleration.
No, the law of applied forces does not state that a body's change in mass is proportional to the amount of force applied to it. The law of applied forces states that the force applied to a body is equal to the mass of the body multiplied by the acceleration of the body. So, if the acceleration of a body increases, the force applied to it will also increase, but the mass of the body will remain the same.
Forces produce motion. Change in motion is directly proportional to applied force (Newton 2nd Law of Motion).
Sure, if they're applied at different distances from the center of rotation.
an equal force applied at a vector opposite the force in question.
No, they will produce same acceleration because mass of the body is same in both the cases,,
they have the certain directions and magnitude
Yes, forces can change an object's motion. When a force is applied to an object, it can cause the object to accelerate, decelerate, or change direction. The change in motion is determined by the magnitude and direction of the force applied.
-- When forces of unequal magnitude are added, the magnitude of the sum can be anything between the difference and sum of the individual magnitudes, depending on the angle between them. -- When forces of equal magnitude are added, the magnitude of the sum can be anything between zero and double the individual magnitudes, depending on the angle between them.
the resultant magnitude is 2 times the magnitude of F as the two forces are equal, Resultant R= F + F = 2F and the magnitude of 2F is 2F.