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You have asked an interesting question and the answer depends on the law in your state and whether your tenancy by the entirety predates the mortgage. The answer is generally yes, depending on the laws in your state.

In Massachusetts and New York there is nothing in the law to prevent one tenant by the entirety from executing a mortgage. However, if the mortgage is foreclosed the bank would only acquire the interest of the one tenant who executed the mortgage. The survivorship rights of the other tenant cannot be severed.

Therefore, a peculiar situation would arise: The bank would take the place of the mortgagor in the tenancy by the entirety. Let's say the husband executed the mortgage and then defaulted. The bank would acquire the husband's interest in the property subject to the wife's interest and to her right of survivorship. The bank and the wife would become co-owners. That means if the husband dies, the wife gets the property free and clear of the bank's interest since the bank is standing in for the husband in the tenancy by the entirety. If the wife dies the bank gets the property free and clear of any other interests. Practically speaking, this is not a profitable position for the bank.

Some states prohibit one tenant by the entirety from conveying their interest and a mortgage by one may be invalid. You need to speak with an attorney in your state who specializes in real estate law.

This is a misunderstood situation and many mortgagees (lenders) have been careless about errors in their mortgages over the past few years.

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Q: Does spouse retain possession of foreclosed tenancy by the entirety property if not on mortgage?
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