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If you are asking this question in relation to the Indian System the answer would be NO. The rationale behind this is that the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is only applicable in cases wherein there exists a consumer relationship.

In a Judgement delivered by the Supreme Court of India- it has been held that statutory authorities; even though receiving fees in various forms would not fall in the category of service provider per se. You can go through the jugdement for a better understanding. The case is -

S P Goel vs Collector of Stamps, Delhi

[1986-1996 Consumer 3034 (NS)]

As in India there is a Common Law system the treatment may be same in other common law legal systems.

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Q: Can a court b proceeded against for deficiency in services because no decision is recd within reasonable time although court fee stands paid in advance?
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